What is the grammatical explanation for saabioona in Quran 5:69

[Talib]

Hello to all

The name Saabioon should be in the direct case (saabieen) in the Quran verse 5:69. What is the grammatical explanation to that exception to the rule?

Thank you for answering.

[Aidyl Nurhadi]

Originally Posted by Talib

Hello to all

The name Saabioon should be in the direct case (saabieen) in the Quran verse 5:69. What is the grammatical explanation to that exception to the rule?

Thank you for answering.

1. Al-Qur'an is the best Arabic literature on the face of the earth.
2. Every Arabic grammar is derived from the Qur'an. How could you fault a book of grammar if your understanding of the grammar in question seems in conflict with it? It's like taking a measurement of something wrongly and blaming it on the ruler.
3. There are about 11 main Arabic colloquials, each with certain differences one from the other. Do you fault the Qur'an by measuring it with the standards of your colloquial?
4. Thabi'oon is the correct dual plural form or jama' for the word i.e. by adding wau and noon to the mufrad. I suggest you refer to Arrufu' and under alwau-jama' muzakkar saleem.

[Talib]

Thank you for your answer.
Verse 5-69 is a list of different types of believers, muslims, jews, christians and the mysterious Sabians.
As the list begins with "inna" all the elements of the list must be in the direct case, which is called nasb in arabic language.
The only word on which the case can be seen is the word Sabians.

In the similar verse in 2-62 the word Sabians is correctly in the nasb case, that is saabieena.
What is the explanation for the word Sabians in 5-69 being in the subject case (rafa' in arabic) that is saabioona ?

[Aidyl Nurhadi]

The change in case is similar to changes number and person and tense. All these are used in the Qur’an for rhetorical purposes in their contexts. This is a feature called iltifaat. Of which there are countless examples in Arabic. As for how these rhetorical measures are used in the Qur’an - they have been covered comprehensively in the largest book on Qur’anic sciences called Al-Burhan by Zarkashi...I would suggest you proceed to this link for further in-depth clarification on the matter http://www.islamic-awareness.org/Qur.../iltifaat.html .

[Talib]

Thanks for your excellent link Aydil. I knew all the different explanations but in that link they are better explained.
I have the feeling that all those explanations are forced on the text.
It may also be the mistake of a copyist which remained in the Koran out of respect. Let us not forget that there is the similar verse in 2-62 where the accusative (direct) case has been used according to the grammar rule.

[thipps]

Originally Posted by Talib

I have the feeling that all those explanations are forced on the text.

Qur'aan is the textbook of grammar.
Did you read Al-Burhan?

It may also be the mistake of a copyist which remained in the Koran out of respect.

Do you even know what you are saying? Do you not know that you are in direct denial of Allaah's promise to safeguard the Qur'aan?
We have, without doubt, sent down the Message; and We will assuredly guard it (from corruption). [Qur'aan,15:9]
Dont you know what it means to openly deny a verse from the Qur'aan? and that too which contains a promise from your Lord which you are saying He did not keep?
Therefore, I have a question. Are you a muslim?
thipps.