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Old 03-27-2006, 11:00 AM   #16 (permalink)
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Re: The Bible is historical and scientific

Just to add - I've seen an interesting suggestion on the problems with dates that we're looking at scribal errors creeping in as the Hebrew language developed - especially with regards to how tens were used with units.
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Old 03-28-2006, 05:23 AM   #17 (permalink)
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Re: The Bible is historical and scientific

Quote:
Originally Posted by rasifnajeeb
Bible and scientific? I quite do not agree to that...

Leviticus, Ch. No.12 Verse No.1 to 5, says that… ‘After a woman gives birth to a male child, she will be unclean for 7 days, and the period of uncleanliness will continue for 33 days more. It she give birth to a female child, she will be unclean for two weeks, and the period of uncleanliness will continue for 66 days. In short, if a woman gives birth to a male child… ‘a son’, she is unclean for 40 days. If she gives birth to a female child… ‘a daughter’, she is unclean for 80 days.
I said I would research birth and uncleanliness, and this is what I found.

After birth giving, a woman's internal areas are damaged. In short, she hemorages for quite awhile. Her cycle is totally disrupted for up to three months. This means she may ovulate, or over ovulate, or not ovulate at all. The lining of the Uterous is not ready for conception (should it occur, it might result in toxic shock and kill her). It also means she could conceivably have a fallopian pregnancy, which again would most likely kill her.

Because there was no such thing as an episiotomy back then, women often would tear the base of the vaginal opening to the anus. This is an area of skin and muscle that takes time to heal, often several months, due to the necessity of the skin and muscle to be thick. This also means that infection could occur, if bacterium were introduced (by the man, and other means). Such an infection could result in Staff, which if not killing the woman, could render her sterile.

As for male vs female birth and the time difference pertaining to "uncleanliness", that seems to be a horomonal thing, as well as a spiritual thing. When a male child is born, he is not producing semen. However, when a female child is born, she is born with her full set of eggs (some 200,000). In short woman gives birth to a tiny "woman". The horomes developed by a woman during child birth differ between a male fetus and a female fetus. Girls it seems take more out of mothers than boys do.

The "uncleanliness" it appears is not because the woman is impure, but rather was used to quell a man from approaching a woman who needed to physically heal.

God was playing on man's concept of clean, and not clean in order to keep man's pants on. (so it appears).

This makes sense since a man cannot conceive of someone taking so much time to heal when he has urges and drives. (it's been a week for crying out loud...).

The inaccuracy here appears to be that God knew man's libido would override common sense, if given the facts as to why woman wasn't ready for him. So He simply stated, "woman is unclean, don't go there".

In reality, God was saying woman isn't ready for you...give her time.

Hog wash you might think? Well, when a farmer plants seed for say, Corn, and reaps his harvest, the worst thing he can do is plant seed in the same soil the next spring. Why? the soil's nutrients have been depleated, and the next crop may fail. So, the wise farmer let's the soil lie fallow for a season, in order for nature to replinish the nutrients the soil needs for a good crop the next time. Same thing goes for soybeans, however, soybeans do not take as much out of the soil as corn does...hence the farmer does not have to wait as long before replanting...

yes, boy is soybeans, and girl is corn... and momma earth can only handle so much in a season...go figure.

v/r

Q
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Old 03-28-2006, 04:59 PM   #18 (permalink)
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Re: The Bible is historical and scientific

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Originally Posted by rasifnajeeb
We don't have to dig up History books or archealogical sites to find this. Bible itself gives two versions on one historic event. Both cannot be true.

It is mentioned in the 2nd Kings, Ch. No 24, Verse No 8, that…‘Jehoiachin was 18 years old, when he began to reign Jerusalem, and he reigned for 3 months and 10 days. 2nd Chronicles, Ch. No 36, Verse No 9, says that…‘Jehoiachin was 8 years old when he began to reign and he reigned for 3 months.

8 or 18???
8 and 18 are verry close numbers. One just has a "1" in front of it.

Could be a typo.
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