Suppreme Manifestation

[Seeker_of_truth]

I was a reading a Baha'i book and it said that Baha'u'llah was the Suppreme Manifestation of God. I don't see how that can be if all previous Manifestations are supposed to be regarded as equal.
Could someone shed some light on this? thanks

[Postmaster]

I've read on some anti-Baha'i sites something along those lines too, that Baha'u'llah is considered bigger then all other previous prophets, but contradictory I have also read that all Gods manifestations are considered equal. If Baha'u'llah holds the message of all prophets being equal, maybe this is what makes him supreme, maybe he is supreme for our present time in history because of the renewed morral concepts for present times. The problem with not outlining he is a supreme prophet is there will be no reason at all to follow Gods next manifestation and thus making invalid his teaching of eqaulity.

[BruceDLimber]

Hi, Seeker! :-)

Originally Posted by Seeker_of_truth

I was a reading a Baha'i book and it said that Baha'u'llah was the Suppreme Manifestation of God. I don't see how that can be if all previous Manifestations are supposed to be regarded as equal.
Could someone shed some light on this? thanks

This has to do with the dual stations of the Divine Messengers.

In one sense, They are indeed all equal and of the same status!

But in another, They differ.

In the Baha'i scriptures, it's expressed like this (with an example present for a different Messenger, Jesus):

[quote]
{191}We have already in the foregoing pages assigned two stations unto each of the Luminaries arising from the Daysprings of eternal holiness. One of these stations, the station of essential unity, We have already explained. "No distinction do We make between any of them." The other is the station of distinction, and pertaineth to the world of creation and to the limitations thereof. In this respect, each Manifestation of God hath a distinct individuality, a definitely prescribed mission, a predestined Revelation, and specially designated limitations. Each one of them is known by a different name, is characterized by a special attribute, fulfils a definite Mission, and is entrusted with a particular Revelation. Even as He saith: "Some of the Apostles We have caused to excel the others. To some God hath spoken, some He hath raised and exalted. And to Jesus, Son of Mary, We gave manifest signs, and We strengthened Him with the Holy Spirit."
(The Book of Certitude, pages 176-177)
[end quote]

I hope this helps!

Best, :-)

Bruce

[Mick]

"Supreme Manifestation" is used to refer to Baha'u'llah as well as other Manifestations in the Writings. I did a search in Ocean and came across many examples of the use of this phrase. For instance,

"The Prophets of God, the supreme Manifestations, are like skilled physicians, and the contingent world is like the body of man: the divine laws are the remedy and treatment.
(Abdu'l-Baha, Some Answered Questions, p. 157)

I could and will if you like give you many more examples of the usage of "Supreme Manifestation" to refer to all, any or a particular Manifestation. We would never exalt one Manifestation over another. We do, though, recognize the importance of the Message delivered by Baha'u'llah and see it as the most recent direction from God. We also recognize His station as the Unifier of all religions, though many people at this early stage of the Baha'i Era, cannot recognize this and continue to try to divide the world by competing for peoples souls claiming it is the "will of God".

If you called Baha'u'llah the "Supreme Manifestation", you would be telling the truth. If you called Jesus of Nazereth the "Supreme Manifestation", you would also be telling the truth. If you said one was more important or more "supreme" than the other, you would be gravely mistaken.

Mick

[arthra]

Originally Posted by Seeker_of_truth

I was a reading a Baha'i book and it said that Baha'u'llah was the Suppreme Manifestation of God. I don't see how that can be if all previous Manifestations are supposed to be regarded as equal.
Could someone shed some light on this? thanks

Again I think we need to cite the actual verses and their context to better understand them... Here is a reference to Supreme Manifestations by ABdul-Baha in Some Answered Questions:

"How often the Prophets of God and His Supreme Manifestations in Their prayers confess Their sins and faults! This is only to teach other men, to encourage and incite them to humility and meekness, and to induce them to confess their sins and faults. For these Holy Souls are pure from every sin and sanctified from faults. In the Gospel it is said that a man came to Christ and called Him "Good Master." Christ answered, "Why callest thou Me good? there is none good but One, that is, God." [Matt. 19:16, 17.] This did not mean--God forbid!--that Christ was a sinner; but the intention was to teach submission, humility, meekness and modesty to the man to whom He spoke. These Holy Beings are lights, and light does not unite itself with darkness. They are life, and life and death are not confounded. They are for guidance, and guidance and error cannot be together...."

Source:

Part Three -- On the Powers and Conditions of the Manifestations of God